And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
Do we as Mormons just completely ignore this verse? Our Handbook of Instructions does not say anything that would change this, and I know of no revelation or First Presidency announcements that counteract this. We probably all know somebody at church or in our family that have divorced for something other than “fornication” . I have a family member that not only divorced, but got a cancellation of sealing by the First Presidency. No fornication was involved.
How does the church justify this? Do we just pretend it is not there? It was part of the Come Follow Me scriptures for this week, but we have Stake Conference today, so my ward gets a pass on hearing my snarky comments on this. How did your SS class handle this verse?
Maybe it was mistranslated? Nope, the JST says pretty much the exact same thing, except for dropping the “it be” .
I’m sure this has been covered in some Institute manual at some time. But I’ve not found it. So let’s crowd source this: Have you ever in your church experience heard a any explanation on why the LDS church completely ignores a direct quote from Jesus? Are there any other directions from Christ that we LDS ignore?
 While today we define fornication as sex between the unmarried, I think we can all agree that in this case it means sex outside of marriage.
 The words in the KJV that are in italics are words that were added in English to make the original Greek more readable, but those words were not in the original. Joseph Smith understood this, so in his “translation” he omitted them in several places